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WATER BAPTISM TODAY

by Charles Ndege
5/29/2014 / Bible Studies

Objections have been raised against cessationist theory of water baptism in this dispensation of the grace of God. Non perpetuation of water baptismal rite into the dispensation of grace is supported by overwhelming scripture passages that need not escape the attention of an honest man.
Water baptism was first preached by John the Baptist for the remission of sins. ''John did baptize in the wilderness and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.''(Mark 1:4). During the so called ''Great Commission'' the risen Lord Jesus Christ sent his eleven apostles to go and make disciples of all nations BAPTIZING THEM, and teaching them to OBSERVE ALL THINGS HE COMMANDED .(Mathew 28:19-20). There is no denying that Paul, later discipled by Ananias, an earlier disciple, ought to have been taught that, he had to comply and observe with the Lord's command to water baptize. Paul was'' initially sent to baptize'' contrary to what he later told the Corinthians that ''he was not sent to baptize.''
In view of the foregoing we are bound to agree with our brother Hanes that, '' The only acceptable explanation for the seeming contradiction here is that, he received more revelations from Christ that water baptism is not part of the gospel of grace and he was not sent to do it to the believers.'' This his statement agrees with what Paul was told on his way to Damascus, '' that Christ appeared to him to make him a minister and a witness, both of these things thou hast seen AND OF THOSE THINGS WHICH I WILL APPEAR UNTO THEE.'' (Acts 26:16).His statement that ''he was not sent to '' is based on a future revelation as his ministry progressed. There was an eventual change in God's program and purposes. The Pentecostal apostles' ministry was coming to a close after the Jews rejected their Messiah, hence a commencement of another Commission entirely different , from the exalted and glorified Christ given to another unique apostle with an added body of truth unknown to those who were before him. Paul ''was sent to baptize'' according to Mathew 28:19-20, but later claimed he'' was not sent to baptize'' according to 1Corinthians 1:17. Any thoughtful student of the word must seek to try to discover and understand the obvious and sudden change in God's mind.
But, Paul also declared in no uncertain terms that the gospel that he preached among the Gentiles was not from man, neither was he taught it, but by revelation; neither did he go to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before him to be taught by them as commanded in Mathew 28:20.The truth of the matter is that, if he was neither taught by Ananias who baptized him nor by Peter and the others who were commanded to teach him to observe the Lord's command concerning water baptism, then we can be rest assured that his, ''NOT SENT TO BAPTIZE WAS PART OF A NEW REVELATION OF THE MYSTERY GIVEN TO HIM ALONE TOWARD THE GENTILES.(Ephesians 3). Today's Bishops, Evangelists, Pastors and Teachers do labor under the instructions in Mathew 28:19-20. They know they are sent through delegation to fully comply with the Lord's command. In the same manner Paul ought to have been sent by delegation from the apostles before him. Hence, his denial must be explained by a new and different commission call unknown to Peter and the rest, later revealed to the apostle to the Gentiles.
Again, Christ commissioned Peter and the rest to go into the entire world to preach the gospel to every creature that if any believe and is baptized should be saved. (Mark 16:15-16).If language still retain the power to convey intelligible concepts, then given Paul's level of education he could not plead ignorance to a clear command to baptize in this text. He that believeth and is baptized'' are plain enough.
John the Baptist was also as clear as to what the purpose of his ministry of water baptism was all about: ''And I knew him not (Jesus): but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water .''(John 1:31). Those who know language better than I know that the first occurrence of a ''major character word'' in literature supplies the contextual concept of the word as the author progresses to write his book. The apostle John is explicit that his name sake, John the Baptist's purpose of water baptism was to ''manifest Christ to Israel'' The crucial question is, was that purpose accomplished to its logical end? No, for the Jews ultimately rejected their Messiah and another apostleship was raised to manifest Christ to both Jews and Gentiles under entirely different commission void of failed water baptism.
The purpose of baptism was to reveal Christ to those intended. But, the gospel Paul describes as his gospel also had the power to reveal Christ to his hearers. When God was pleased to..He called him to reveal (manifest) His Son in him, He commissioned him to preach the revealed Son among the Gentiles without any further conference with flesh and blood. (Galatians 1:15-16).It is a fundamental biblical fact that according to prophecy, the converted Jews were to be witnesses unto the Gentiles. Since they failed, God had to use temporarily another means to take out a people from for his name from among the Gentiles. This other program given to Paul to save Gentiles, is what he talks of in Romans 16:25." Now to him that has power to stabilize you ACCORDING TO MY GOSPEL (not Peter's) and the preaching of Jesus Christ, ACCORDING TO THE REVELATION OF THE MYSTERY, which was kept secret since the world began. If Paul's gospel is able to stabilize his converts minus ''water baptism'' which was part of a previous revelation received before that later given to the apostle to the Gentiles, what makes one to think it is necessary under the obtaining dispensation?
Lastly, we would inquire from our dissenters what spiritual purpose water baptism serves in this dispensation of the grace of God. Is it not supposed to be an ordinance instituted under the old economy by God just like others? But, did not revelation later given to Paul set them aside altogether having been nailed to the cross? The temporary continuation by Paul to practice those ceremonies under the old economy was because of the hostilities by the Jews in order to win them. His later assertion that there is neither Jew nor Gentile, is a demonstration that he no longer considered those ordinances to be necessary in Christian practice. ''But, of those who seemed to be somewhat, (Peter, James and John) (Whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth no mans person) For they who seemed to be somewhat in CONFERENCE (IN JERUSALEM) ADDED NOTHING TO ME.(Galatians 2:6). So they didn't add the necessity of water baptism to Paul's ministry committed to him by the risen and exalted Lord.
APOSTLE PAUL WAS NOT SENT TO BAPTIZE BUT TO PREACH THE GOSPEL (1Corinthians 1:17); JOHN THE BAPTIST WAS SENT TO PREACH THE GOSPEL AND BAPTIZE (Mark 1:4); APOSTLE PETER WAS SENT TO PREACH THE GOSPEL AND BAPTIZE (Mark 16:15-16; Acts 2:38; Mathew 28:19-20).
''Sent me NOT TO BAPTIZE but to preach the gospel'' and '' Go ye therefore and TEACH ALL NATIONS, BAPTIZING THEM'' and ''Repent AND BE BAPTIZED EVERYONE of you for the remission of sins,'' are statements that defy the most profound thinker's attempt to reconcile into harmonious compatibility with that of Paul. Paul's implied decree is that, mixing his salvation message with water baptism had the potential of making the cross of non effect.

Born to a peasant farmer in rural Western Kenya in 1958. East Africa Certificate of Education holder, 1977 class. Copyright2013 Charles O. Ndege. All rights reserved.
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