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Some Questions for Pretribulationists
by Robert Hawes The following are some questions that I would strongly encourage pretribulationists to consider, as I believe they demonstrate that common pretrib teachings simply are not compatible with scripture: 1. With regard to the Church in Revelation: Pretrib teachers like to point out that the "church" is not mentioned by name between Revelation chapters 3 and 22, and thereby suppose that this must mean that the church has been raptured and is already in Heaven. However, I note two things about this: First, given that the church is not mentioned by name AT ALL, neither on the earth nor in Heaven, does this argument not cut both ways? Why is the mere absence of the term sufficient grounds for arguing that the church cannot be on earth, when it is not mentioned as being in Heaven, either? Second, while specific local congregations of believers ("churches") are mentioned in Revelation, the Church, as in the entire body of Christ, is never mentioned at all. Check a concordance and you'll see that every use of the word "church" in Revelation is either in the plural form or else applies to a specific 1st Century congregation. Consequently, how can we establish the Church's location when the corporate body of Christ is never mentioned by that term in the entire book? 2. With regard to Matthew 24: Most pretrib teachers that I've heard and read argue that Matthew 24:29-31 does not reference the rapture at all. In their view, it portrays only the actual second coming (the posttribulational "glorious appearing") of Christ and, therefore, does not apply to the Church. But then, if this is so, why do they continue to use this verse and apply it to the rapture? Matthew 24:36 - "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only." If Matthew 24 is only a discussion of the posttribulational second coming, then isn't it a mistake to apply this verse to the rapture? Wasn't Jesus really saying that no one knows the day or hour of the glorious appearing, rather than the rapture? 3. With regard to the Marriage Supper of the Lamb: Revelation 19 tells us that the marriage supper of the Lamb is proclaimed just before John sees Jesus coming on a white horse to overthrow the Beast and the False Prophet (an indisputable second coming reference). Only then is the bride said to be "ready". If the church is the "bride of Christ" and is raptured 7 years prior to the second coming, how is it that she is only declared to be ready for marriage at the time of the second coming? Robert Hawes is the author of "In Search of God: A Look at Life's Most Essential Question," as well as many articles on various subjects ranging from politics to theology and Christian apologetics. His blog is: http://takeupyourcross73.blogspot.com. Article Source: http://www.faithwriters.com |